nigel2k
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PharmacyPREP.com
Pharmacology & Practice and Med Chem Test
1) Which of the following drugs are associated with QT segment prolongation side effects?
A) Penicillin
B- Cephalosporin's
C) Macrolides
D) Tetracycline
E) Metronidazole
Ans. C
Tips. Macrolide erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin have QT segment prolongation side effects. The other antibiotics levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gatifloxacin are associated with QT segment prolongation. Avoid combining drugs that can cause QT prolongation. Monitor ECG for QT prolongation.
2) What is the auxiliary label for tetracycline?
A. Take with full glass of water
B. Take an empty stomach
C. May stain teeth
D. Shake well before use
E. Use sunscreen
Ans. B
3) Antibiotics used to eradicate H. pylori are all EXCEPT:
A. Metronidazole
B. Clarithromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
Ans. D
Tips:
Triple therapies: amoxicillin, metronidazole, clarithromycin
Quadruple therapy: tetracyclin+metronidazole+bismuth subsalcylates+PPI
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PharmacyPREP.com
Social/Behavioural and Administrative Sciences Test
1. Which of the following is an example of primary endpoint?
A. arterial blood pressure for risk of stroke, MI and cardiovascular complications
B. beta blockers decrease mortality after myocardial infarction
C. blood glucose for diabetic survival/complications
D. Cholesterol and triglyceride levels for atherosclerotic disease
E. CD4 count or viral load for complications of HIV
Ans. B
2) All of the following are surrogate endpoint, except
A. Glaucoma: intraocular pressure: surrogate for loss of vision
B. Diabetes mellitus: blood sugar: surrogate for survival /complications
C. HIV: CD4 count or viral load: surrogate for complications of HIV
D. fever or WBC surrogate for pneumonia
E. Clinically meaningful endpoints that directly measure how a patient feels, functions, or survives
Ans. E
3. Which if the following is a proven case for prevalence:
a. 50 died from community of 500 infected by malaria 2015
b. 500 died from community in 2015
C. 5000 Canadian first time infected by influenza in 2015
D. Observation of a group for Cancer group for 1 year
E. Post marketing surveillance or phase IV clinical trials
Ans. A
Tips.
Prevalence; Total number of cases of disease that exist (new and old).Prevalence = totalinfectedTotal ExposedIncidence; The number of new cases of the disease in a unit of time, usually one year.www.pharmacyprep.com -
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Pharmaceutical Sciences Test
1) Which of the following is NOT structural analog of xanthines?
A) Mercaptopurines
b)C&D
C) sulfinpyrazone
D) Vitamin A
Ans. B
Tips. Mercaptopurines like azathioprine, 5FU, and allopurinol are xanthine analogs.
2. Which of the following is not an insulin action?
A Increased glucose uptake and its metabolism in muscle and adipose tissues.
B Increased glucose uptake by liver and its storage as glycogen
C Inhibition of the release of free fatty acids from adipose tissues
D Increase conversion of glycogen in the liver to glucose
Ans. D
Tips. Insulin decrease conversion of glycogen in the liver to glucose.
3) If t1/2 elimination a drug is 2 hours, what fraction of the original dose of the drug will remain in the body after 4 hours?
A) 50%
B- 25%
C) 12%
D) 0%
Ans. B
Tips. 100% --> 50% --> 25%
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Within this post you will find Sample Questions from the Evaluating Exam Prep course offered by Pharmacy Prep. There are 3 sample questions, actual test consist of 150 questions per test available in class or online with our Home study program. Tests covers all the syllabus published by PEBC.
PharmacyPREP.com
Biomedical Sciences Test
1. Connective tissue that connects muscle to bone is?
A. Ligament
B. Osseous
C. Cartilage
D. Tendon
Ans. D
A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue which attaches muscle to bone. Tendons may also attach muscles to structures such as the eyeball. A tendon serves to move the bone or structure.
2. Which of the following pigment contain a molecule composed of opsin (a protein) and cis-retinal (Vitamin A), and absorbs light, retinal changes from cis to trans, which triggers nerve impulse that carries visual information to brain?
A. idopsin B. Rhodopsin C. Vitamin A D. Cis-Retinal D. Trans-retinal
Ans. B
3) Which of the following section of brain or central nervous system control voluntary movements (walking, jogging)?
A) Temporal lobe
b)Frontal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Cerebrum
E) Cerebellum
Ans. D
Tips. Cerebrum control voluntary and involuntary movements. Cerebellum control balance and coordination. Thalamus controls alertness and awareness.
Occipital lobe. Eye information is processed.
Temporal lobe. Auditory information is processed. Temporal & Frontal lobe associated with cognitive function and dementia like Alzheimer disease associated in temporal and frontal lobe.
#GETREALSUCCESS
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QE Competency 8
Collaboration and Team Work MOCK Test
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1) RKP is 65 year old patient being treated with warfarin to prevent blood clots may be prescribed diclofenac and misoprostol combination (Arthrotec) by another specialist to treat arthritis. If taken together, the patient could experience internal bleeding. Upon reviewing the patient's prescriptions, the pharmacist notes the potential drug interaction and contacts the prescriber to alert him/her to the problem. Pharmacist evaluating a patient's planned drug therapy before a medication is dispensed is involved in?
A) Prospective drug utilization review
B)Retrospective drug utilization review
C) Reactive drug utilization review
D) Common Drug Review
E) Med Review
Ans. A
• Prospective - evaluation of a patient's therapy before medication is dispensed
• Concurrent - ongoing monitoring of drug therapy during the course of treatment
• Retrospective - review of therapy after the patient has received the medication (medical records).
2) Laura woods a clinical pharmacist she visits primary care physician for academic detailing meeting, she presents charts and evidence information in inhalation therapy in COPD? What is incorrect therapeutic action for COPD management?
A) Short acting bronchodilators as needed used for mild COPD
B- If COPD persist long acting bronchodilators like tiotropium is added
C) If COPD persist add long acting beta agonist to tiotropium
D) In COPD inhaled corticosteroids are used for patient FEV1
Ans: D
Tips: TC page 658 -659. Oral corticosteroid improve lung function and shorten length of hospital stay in all patients and reduce risk of early relapse. A 10-14 days course of oral prednisone 30-40 mg/day or equivalent is sufficient.
Tips: Promotes evidence based information to healthcare professional.
3) Acute exacerbation of COPD severe dyspnea, increase sputum production doctor will initiate anti-inflammatory drugs like?
A) Prednisone 7 to 10 days
B- Inhaled corticosteroids
C) Iv antibiotics
D) In bronchodilators
Ans: A
Tips. Anti-inflammatory steroids. However if patient have dyspnea, cough and sputum may require initiating antibiotic therapy. Purulent discharge, fever may require to initiated antibiotic therapy.
CTC7 658. In acute exacerbations bronchodilatation is optimized by increasing the dose and frequency of existing bronchodilator treatment. Treat dyspnea patient with SABA and ipratropium. Apart from optimizing bronchodilators patient with purulent acute exacerbations benefit from antibiotics.
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QE Competency 6
Patient Care and Drug Information Resources, Access, Retrieval
MOCK TEST
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1) The voluntary systems reporting of suspected adverse drug reactions (ADR) during post marketing monitoring and post marketing safety studies. The ADRs should be reported to all of the following populations, except?
A) Women of child bearing age with a new side effects
B- Patient with concurrent diseases a new side effects
C) Seniors older than 65 yr age with known side effects of drug
D) Rare serious adverse drug reactions and new side effects
Ans. C
Tips. ADR is requiring for all of the above populations. All this is done during post marketing monitoring. Health Canada Medeffect program has vigilance program gather all ADRs. Health Canada therapeutic access strategy (TAS) is responsible post marketing surveillance study.
2) A high cholesterol patient is asking for dose and benefit of omega fatty acid. What is the appropriate to do?
A) Use Compendium of Therapeutic Minor ailments
B- Use Compendium Products for Minor Ailment
C) Refer to dietician
D) Use Compendium of pharmaceutical Specialties
Ans. A
Tips: CTMA. Chapter nutrition has information of omega fatty acids. Who should be referred dietician? Diabetic, obese, weight loss, hypertension, and cholesterol.
Eating Well with Canada's Food Guide: omega dose can be found in eating well with Canada Food guide.
CTMA: Weight loss diets, artificial sweeteners, infant nutrition and special diets.
Diabetic patient wants to know diabetic meal? Refer to diabetic dietician (dietician with diabetic managements can individualized nutrition recommendations and also provide carbohydrate containing, timing of insulin.
3) Which of the following measures can prevent these type mix ups!
A) Include the generic name throughout the prescription process like clopidogrel for Plavix and dabigatran etexilate for Pradaxa.
B- Read label with patient at counselling point
C) Read label at the time taking drug from shelf and read label at the time of counting and placing bottle back into shelf
D) Consider automated alert system in computers
ANS. A
Tips. Mix up error cause due to drug name confusions sound alike, look alike.
Academic detailing enhances prescription practice. Economic details enhance business of pharmacy reps.
Must read. Error prone abbreviations and dosage designations.
Look-alike and sound alike drug names. Strategies and actions to prevent this happening.
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QE Competency 5 & 7
Communication skills and Health Promotion Strategies
MOCK Test
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1. A patient on methadone maintenance treatment (MMT), missed 3 consecutive doses. What is pharmacist concern?
a. If a regular dose of methadone is given after a period of missed doses, there is risk of overdose and death
B. Methadone regulatory problem
C. Methadone prescriber burden to rewrite prescription
D. Pharmacist excessive work
Ans. A
Tips: Pharmacy connection, Fall 2013, page 22: The importance missed doses in methadone MMT.
Early stabilization phase (0-2 wks):
1 day missed.........Resume same dose
2 consecutive days missed........restart initial dose 10-30 mg for least 3 days
Late stabilization: maintenance:
1-2 days missed........ no change
3 consecutive missed......... restart at 50% regular dose or decrease 30 mg
2. If patient missed 3 consecutive dose of methadone, and methadone prescriber is away on vacation. What is appropriate to do?
A. Wait till methadone prescriber returns from vacation
B. Ask other prescriber to get methadone prescription license
C. Ask patient to get prescription from walk in clinic
D. Stop taking methadone treatment
Ans. B
Tips: Methadose (Methadone Hydrochloride Oral Concentrate) can only be prescribed by physicians who have received an exemption pursuant to section 56 of the CDSA from the Minister of Health Canada to prescribe methadone (see Condition for Distribution and Use of Methadone). Patients prescribed methadone should be carefully monitored and provided appropriate supportive psychological and social services.
3. A patient missed 1 or 2 doses frequently. What is appropriate to do?
A. Communicate MMT prescriber in timely fashion
B. Discontinue MMT treatment
C. Stop dispensing methadone
D. no concern with 1-2 dose missed
Ans. A
Tips: Stability of Methadone According to the Diluents used and Conditions of Storage (Aug. 1994 Dispensing of Methadone for the Treatment of Opioid Dependence, Health Canada)
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Pharmacy Prep
QE Competency 4
Pharmacy Management (Practice Setting) MOCK TEST
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1. A doctor want to prescribe Canagliflozin (Invokana) tab 300 for his patient, want your recommendation about canaglifazin and ask about the new medication; fasting blood sugar 8 mmol/L, A1c 8%,GFR 60 ml/min, Scr 80 mmol/L. Patient current medication includes. metformin 500 mg bid, gliclazide MR 60 mg, furosemide 20 mg daily. Omega 3, 1g and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily. Which of the following is pharmacist concern?
A. patient hyperkalemia
B. Patient using loop diuretics
C. HbA1C decrease 0.5 to 1%.
D. Acts on kidney Na cotransporter. Spills lots of sugar into urine can cause UTIs.
E. All of the above
Ans. B
Tips. Side effect: hypotension, weight loss, hypovolemia (dehydration) and hyperkalemia. And loop diuretic diuretics increase risk of hypotension. Should not be prescribed if GFR 45 ml/min. Can cause vaginal candidiasis and urinary tract infections.
2. A regular customer of your pharmacy on insurance as follows deductible of $100. He already paid $63.25 before co-payment of 10% of each prescription. One day he came with prescription. Its total price is $87.25. Including $15 as dispensing fee. His insurance covered $10 dispensing fee only. What customer pay?
A. $25 B. $77.50 C. $49 D. $36.75
Ans. C
TIPS:
$100 - $63.25 = $36.75 (remaining deductible)
$87.5 - $10 = $77.50
$77.50 -$36.75 = $40.25
$40.25 + $8.75 = $49
or
$100 - $63.25 = $36.75 (remaining deductible)
$36.75 + $5 + $7.25 = $49
3) Who regulates opening and operating hours of pharmacy stores?
A) NAPRA
B)College of pharmacy or provincial colleges
C)Pharmacy Manager
D)Pharmacy owner
Ans. B
Tips. if it is regulation or regulates by college of provincial. Who sets schedule or opening or closing, shifts by owner/manager. However policies and procedure are made pharmacy owner/manager.
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QE Competency 3 Calculations
(Module 3 Managing Drug Distribution)
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1) A hospital pharmacist received the following order Nafcillin sodium 800 mg in 100 mL NS. The pharmacist uses a 1 g vial of nafcillin with label directions as follows: “When reconstituted with 3.4 mL of diluents, each vial contains 4 mL of solution.†However, he reconstitutes the vial with 5 mL of sterile water instead of 3.4 mL as directed on the label. How much of the solution should be added to 100 mL of normal saline for the required dose?
A) 5.6 ml
B)4.48 ml
C) 5 ml
D) 4 ml
Ans. B
Tips.
Volume occupied by powder = 4 mL – 3.4 mL = 0.6 mL
Total volume mistakenly diluted = 5 mL + 0.6 mL = 5.6 mL
1 g ------ 5.6 ml
800 mg ......?
(5.6 mL/1000 mg) x 800 mg
= 4.48 mL
2) The directions for cefamandole for IM injection are as follows:
“Reconstitute each gram of cefamandole with 3 mL of one of the following diluents: sterile water for injection, bacteriostatic water for injection, 0.9% sodium chloride injection or bacteriostatic sodium chloride injection.â€
What would be the final concentration of a 2 g vial of cefamandole if constituted according to the directions?
A) 333 mg/ml
B)6 mg/ml
C) 9 mg/ml
D) 12 mg/ml
Ans. A
TIPS:
Volume of diluents to add = (2 g x 3 mL) /1g = 6 mL
Concentration of solution = 2 g/6 mL= 333 mg/Ml
3) At 11:30 am, you receive an order in the hospital pharmacy with instructions to decrease the flow rate on a patient’s IV to 50 mL/hr. When you check this patient’s profile, you find that he was receiving D51/2NS 1000 mL at 85 mL/hr and that the next bag was started at 9:00 am. When should the next bag of D51/2NS be started, assuming that the nurse changed the IV rate on the existing bag at 11:30 am?
A) 9:00 am
B)11:30 pm
C) 9:00 pm
D) 3:15 am
E) 10:00 am
Ans: D
Tips. 9:00 am to 11:30 am = 2.5 hours
85 mL/1 hr x 2.5 hr = 212.5 mL infused at 11:30 am
1,000 mL – 212.5 mL = 787.5 mL left at 11:30 am
(787.5 mL x 1 hour)/50 mL = 15.75 hr (15 HR. 45 MIN)
The IV will last for 15 hours, 45 minutes after the rate is changed to 50 mL/hr.
Adding 15 hours, 45 minutes to 11;30 am, the next bag of IV solution should be started at 3:15 am.
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Within this post you will find Sample Questions from all competencies test from the Qualifying Exam Part 1 (MCQ) Pre-course offered by Pharmacy Prep. For each competency test there are 3 sample questions actual competency test consist of 150 questions per test available in class or online with our Home study program.
Qualifying Exam Part 1 (MCQ)
Competency 1 &2
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Patient Care, Ethics and Regulations
1. List of RX drugs with narcotics PREP, controlled, targeted and prescription drugs respectively. How many prescriptions are valid for a year?
1. Butalbital/ ASA/Caffeine /Codeine (FIORINAL C1/4 OR C1/2)
2. Prochlorperazine
3. Tramadol
4. Dexamphetamine
5. Clonazepam
6. Nortriptyline
A. 6 B. 5 C. 2 D. 1
Ans. D
Tips: only benzodiazepine prescription expire in one year.
2. All of the following can prescribe narcotics, except?
A. podiatrist
B. nurse practitioner
C. midwife
D. Physiotherapist
Ans. D
Tips: veterinary, dentist, midwife, nurse practitioner, physician, podiatrist. (CANNOT prescribe registered nurse, registered practical nurse, nurse educators).
4) A patient is on phenelzine for the past 3 mo. currently looking for OTC nasal congestion. What is best action to do?
A) Pseudoephedrine
B- Codeine syrup
C) Dextromethorphan
D) Desloratadine
Ans. D
Tips: Phenelzine and Tranylcypromine are potent MAOi have high drug interaction. Pseudoephedrine with MAOi cause hypertension crisis. Dextromethorphan with MAOi cause serotonin syndrome.
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Hello Misbah
How are you? I passed the PEBC exam! Thank you
and your wonderful team!
Thanks to Pharmacy Prep!
F Sultana
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Thank you for everything Dr. Misbah I passed MCQ exam. Taking you class was the best decision i have made
Feng YW
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CONGRATULATIONS ON YOUR GREAT SUCCESS.
A Ruzic
WY Feng
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Hello Mr.Misbah
It's Taran here (Your student in pharmacy tech classes)
I am so happy to share with you that I passed my OSPE exam
And I'm Registered tech now ..
I really want to thank you for all your help and guidance.
Thank you so much sir
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Thu 5/18/2017 8:33 AM
Good morning,
I'm grateful to inform you that I passed my OSPE exam and with this I'm oficially on my way to be an registered tech. All my exams were passed from first attempt and I owe this to a very dedicate team that helped me. Thank you all for your support and dedication. Please extend my gratitude to all the instructors and team from Pharmacy Prep.
M Vilcu
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CONGRATULATIONS ON YOUR GREAT SUCCESS.
A Ruzic
M Vilcu
F Sultana
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With the changes coming this November to the Qualifying Exam Part 1 exam, we at Pharmacy Prep are already working to adapt our online exam portal to the changes. The Qualifying Exam Part 1 exam starting this November will be a 1 day computer based test with 200 questions and with a 4 hour time limit. Within our exam portal “eprepstation.com†we have database of questions of over 1000 questions from all competencies ( a pool of questions we grab from).With our “NEW Test Yourself Mocks†questions are grabbed at random so each test you take would be unique. Also test can be adjusted to your liking; you are able to take a test based on only on one or more competency or a comprehensive that covers all. With this new addition students will be able to practice any competency easily and be ready for the exam. Changes will be implemented before our next classes begin in August 2017.
Click for a overview of the
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Below are the most commonly used references when preparing for Pharmacy Exam Prep.
RxTx - https://www.e-therapeutics.ca/login?auth=fail
CTC7, CTMA, CPS , http://www.pharmacists.ca/allaccess
NAPRA http://www.napra.ca/pages/home/default.aspx
Health Canada http://www.hc-sc.gc.ca/index-eng.php
Travel Canada https://travel.gc.ca/
Good luck with your Studies
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WISHING ALL THE BEST AND GREAT SUCCESS IN EVALUATING EXAM RESULTS JAN 2017
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Great success and congratulations on Passing MCQ
Zohair.Ahmed
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Heartiest congratulations for your MCQ and OSCE in first attemtp
RUPA SHUKLA
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May name S. James. I was there in your pharmacy prep technician MCQ and OSPE exam prep classess. I am happy to inform you that I passed both MCQ and OSPE. Thank you very much for your help.
Siny
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Hi Misbah
This is Nurgul from your OSPE class. I passed my exam, Thanks a lot for your training and help . Have a nice day.
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Hello Misbah Sir
Im a student of pharmacy technician batch. I passed the OSPE exam. Thank you very much. Vedant
Misbah’s Pharmacy Prep Evaluating Exam sample Mock questions
in Preparing Evaluating Exams
Posted
PharmacyPREP.com
Pharmacy Practice, Clinical and OTC MOCK Test
1) What is incorrect about acne topical preparations?
A) benzoyl peroxide is photosensitive preferably apply before bedtime
B- gel preparation for acne treatment is preferable than cream
C) Isotretinoin is topical preparation is used if antibiotics are not effective
D)Recommend oil free makeup products
Ans. C
Tips: Isotretinoin is oral preparation. Benzoylperoxide applied before bedtime. Can stains clothing. Benzoylperoxide has quick onset and skin irritation and burning at high concentration.
2) What is incorrect about competitive antagonism?
A. Action of agonist is blocked if concentration of antagonist is Â
B. Antagonism can be reversed or overcome by  conc. Of agonist
C. ED50 of agonist  in presence of antagonist
D. Naloxone potentiate the effects of morphine
Ans. D
3) A mother of 1 year old child approaches to pharmacist. Asking what is appropriate recommendation for confluent tomato red plaques (beefy red with lacy or scaly border or, white scaly border at diaper area?
A) Apply zinc oxide cream or petrolatum
B- Anti yeast agents miconozole, clotrimazole, or nystatin.
C) Dry diaper area with alcohol wipes
D) Change diapers frequently
Ans. B
Tips. Complicated diaper rash likely colonized by Candida require antifungal therapy. Topical antifungals are the drug of choice, they are 70-90% effective candida.
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